UPSC CAPF Assistant Commandants Examination Rules 2020

Central Armed Police Forces (CAPF) Assistant Commandants Examination Rules 2020 by Union Public Service Commission: MHA Notification dated 18.08.2020

MINISTRY OF HOME AFFAIRS

NOTIFICATION

New Delhi, the 18th August, 2020

No. I-45023/02/2020-Pers-II.— The Rules for a competitive examination to be held by the Union Public Service Commission in 2020 for the purpose of filling vacancies of Assistant Commandants in Central Armed Police Forces (CAPFs) viz. Border Security Force (BSF), Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF), Central Industrial Security Force (CISF), Indo-Tibetan Border Police (ITBP) and Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB) are published for general information.

1. The number of vacancies to be filled through the examination will be specified in the Notice issued by the Commission. Reservation will be made for candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes and the Economically Weaker Sections. 10% of the total vacancies will be reserved for Ex-Serviceman candidates. An Ex-serviceman candidate of UR/SC/ ST/OBC/EWSs category will be counted against the vacancies of the respective category.

NOTE : In case the vacancy(ies) reserved for Ex-servicemen remain unfilled due to non-availability of eligible or qualified candidates, the same shall be filled by candidates from non-ex-servicemen category.

2. The examination will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission in the manner prescribed in Appendix-I to these rules.

The dates on which and the places at which the examination will be held shall be fixed by the Commission.

3. No person who is not a citizen of India shall, except with the consent of the Central Government signified in writing, be appointed or employed under these Rules.

Provided that nothing contained in these rules shall debar the appointment, enrolment or employment of a subject of Nepal or Bhutan under these rules.

4. Both Male and Female candidates will be eligible for this examination.

5. (a) A candidate must have attained the age of 20 years and must not have attained the age of 25 years on the 1st August, 2020 i.e. he/she must have been born not earlier than 2nd August, 1995 and not later than 1st August, 2000.

(b) The upper age limit prescribed above will be relaxable-

(i) Upto a maximum of five years if a candidate belongs to a Scheduled Caste or a Scheduled Tribe;

(ii) Upto a maximum of three years in the case of candidates belonging to Other Backward Classes who are eligible to avail of reservation applicable to such candidates;

(iii) Upto a maximum of five years for Civilian Central Government Servants in accordance with the existing instructions of the Central Government. Ex-servicemen will also be eligible for this relaxation. However the total relaxation claimed on account of Government Service will be limited to five years.

Note-I : Candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes and the Other Backward Classes who are also covered under any other category of Para 5(b) above, viz. those coming under the category of Civilian Central Government Servants/Ex-servicemen will be eligible for grant of cumulative age-relaxation under both the categories.

Note-II : The term ex-servicemen will apply to the persons who are defined as ex-servicemen in the Ex-servicemen (Re-employment in Civil Service and Posts) Rules, 1979, as amended from time to time.

Note-III: The term “Civilian Central Government Servants” in Para 5(b)(iii) above will apply to persons who are defined as “Government Servants” in the Central Civil Services (Classification, Control and Appeal) Rules, 1965 as amended from time to time.

Note IV:—The age concession under rule 5(b)(iii) will be admissible to Ex-Servicemen i.e. a person who has served in any rank whether as combatant or non-combatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the Indian Union and who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension.

SAVE AS PROVIDED ABOVE THE AGE LIMITS PRESCRIBED CAN IN NO CASE BE RELAXED.

Note-V : The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation or Secondary School Leaving Certificate or in a certificate recognized by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Higher Secondary or an equivalent examination certificate.

No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted.

The expression Matriculation/Higher Secondary Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above.

Note-VI : Candidates should note that only the date of birth as recorded in the Matriculation / Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent Certificate as on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted.

Note-VII: Candidates should also note that once date of birth has been submitted by them in the application form and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an examination, no change will be allowed subsequently (or at any other examination of the Commission) on any grounds whatsoever.

6. A candidate must hold a Bachelor’s degree of a University incorporated by an Act of the Central or State Legislature in India or other educational institutions established by an Act of Parliament or declared to be deemed as a University under Section-3 of the University Grants Commission Act, 1956 or possess an equivalent qualification.

Note-I: Candidates who have appeared at an examination the passing of which would render them educationally qualified for the Commission’s examination but have not been informed of the results as also the candidates who intend to appear at such a qualifying examination in the year 2020 will also be eligible for admission to the examination. Such candidates will be admitted to the examination if otherwise eligible but the admission would be deemed to be provisional and subject to cancellation if they do not produce proof of having passed the requisite examination along with the Detailed Application Form which will be required to be submitted to the Commission by the candidates who after qualifying on the result of the written part of the examination are also declared qualified in the Physical Standards/ Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests. Such proof of passing the requisite examination should be dated earlier than the due date (closing date) of Detailed Application Form of the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2020.

Note-II: In exceptional cases the Union Public Service Commission may treat a candidate who has not any of the foregoing qualifications as a qualified candidate provided that he/she has passed examination conducted by the other Institutions, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission justifies his/her admission to the examination.

Note-III: Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognized by Government as equivalent to professional and technical degree would also be eligible for admission to the examination.

7. Possession of NCC ‘B’ or ‘C’ Certificate will be a desirable qualification. These desirable qualifications will be given consideration at the time of Interview/Personality Test only.

8. A candidate who has been finally selected on the basis of an earlier examination to the post of Assistant Commandants in any of the Forces participating in the Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination will not be eligible to appear at a subsequent examination for recruitment of Assistant Commandants in the participating Central Armed Police Forces.

9. Candidates must meet the prescribed Physical and Medical standards for admission to Central Armed Police Forces (Assistant Commandants) Examination, 2020 specified in Appendix-II of these Rules.

10. Candidates must pay the fee prescribed in the Commission’s Notice.

11.All candidates in Government Service, whether in permanent or in temporary capacity or as work-charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under Public Enterprises will be required to submit an undertaking that they have informed in writing to their Head of Office/Department that they have applied for the examination.

Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their application will be liable to be rejected/candidature will be liable to be cancelled.

12. The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the examination shall be final.

The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. written Examination, Physical and Medical Standard Tests or Personality / Interview Tests will be purely provisional subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the Written Examination, Physical and Medical Standard Tests or Personality / Interview Tests, it is found that they do not fulfill any of eligibility conditions; their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission.

13. No candidate will be admitted to the examination unless he/she holds a certificate of admission from the Commission.

14.A candidate who is or has been declared by Commission to be guilty of :

i) obtaining support for his/her candidature by any following means namely;

(a) offering illegal gratification; or

(b) applying pressure on; or

(c) blackmailing or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or

(ii) impersonation, or

(iii) procuring impersonation by any person, or

(iv) submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with, or

(v) uploading irrelevant photos in the application form in place of actual photo/signature; or

(vi) making statements which are incorrect or false, or suppressing material information, or

(vii) resorting to the following means in connection with his /her candidature for the examination, namely

(a) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means,

(b) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination,

(c) influencing the examiners, or

(viii) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination, or

(ix) writing irrelevant matter including, obscene language or irrelevant matter pornographic matter, in the script(s), or

(x) misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall, or

(xi) harassing or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of their examination, or

(xii) being in possession of or using any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or

(xiii) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their e-Admission Certificates permitting them to take the examination, or

(xiv) attempting to commit, or as the case may be abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses; may in addition to rendering himself/herself liable to criminal prosecution, be liable

(a) and shall be disqualified by the Commission from the examination for which he/she is a candidate; and/or

(b) shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period:-

(i) by the Commission from any examination or selection held by them;

(ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; and

(c) if he/she is already in service under Government to disciplinary action under the appropriate rules : Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:

(i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as he/she may wish to make in that behalf; and

(ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate, within the period allowed to him/ her into consideration.

14.1 Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate (s) in committing or abetting the Commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (i) to (xiii) above render himself liable to action in terms of the Clause (xiv).

15.(1) Candidates who obtain such minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as may be fixed by the Commission in their discretion shall be summoned for the Physical Standards / Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests to check whether they meet the Physical and Medical Standards specified in Appendix-II to these Rules:

(2) Provided that candidates belonging to the Scheduled Castes, the Scheduled Tribes, Other Backward Classes, Economically Weaker Sections or the Ex-servicemen may be summoned for the Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests by the Commission by applying relaxed standards if the Commission is of the opinion that sufficient number of candidates from these categories are not likely to be summoned for the Physical Standards /Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests on the basis of the general standard in order to fill up the vacancies reserved for them.

(3) Those candidate who meet the prescribed Physical Standards as specified in Appendix-II to these Rules, will be put through Physical Efficiency Test (PET) as indicated below:-

PHYSICAL EFFICIENCY TEST (PET)

Men	Women
(a) 100 Metre race	In 16 Seconds	In 18 Seconds
(b) 800 Metre race	In 3 minutes 45 second	In 4 minutes 45 second
(c) Long Jump	3.5 Meters (3 chances)	3.0 Meters (3 chances)
(d) Shot Put	4.5 Meters (7.26 Kgs.)	————

 

Tests, to check the standards specified in Appendix-II, will be conducted only in respect of candidates who are declared qualified in the Physical Efficiency Tests. Candidates will either be declared “Fit” or “Unfit” in the Medical Standards Tests. Those candidates who are declared ‘Unfit’ in the Medical Standards Tests will be allowed to appear before the Review Medical Board on their appeals by the Appellate Authority.

(5) The Physical Standards / Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Tests will be conducted under the supervision of a Nodal Authority to be appointed by the Ministry of Home Affairs. These tests will be conducted at various centers to be notified after the results of the written examination.

(6) Appeals will be entertained only against the Medical Standards Tests and will have to be made to the Appellate Authority designated by the Ministry of Home Affairs within a period of 15 days from the date of declaration of the result of these tests.

(7) Candidates, who are declared qualified in the Medical Standards Tests, will be called for the Interview/Personality Test to be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission. Candidates, who are declared medically unfit but allowed to appear before the ‘Review Medical Board’ on their appeal by the Appellate Authority will be called for Interview/Personality Tests provisionally. The Interview/Personality Test will carry 150 marks.

(8) Pregnancy at the time of PET will be a disqualification and pregnant female candidate will be rejected.

(9) Candidates, who are short-listed for Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Test including those short-listed for Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests and Medical Standards Test provisionally, will be asked to fill up Online Detailed Application Form (DAF) in which among other things, they may be required to indicate their preferences of Forces.

(10) The Interview/Personality Test would be conducted by a Board of competent and unbiased persons who will have before them a record of the candidate’s curriculum vitae. The candidate will be asked questions both in his/her own field as well as matters of general interest to test his/her awareness and understanding. In broad terms, this will be an assessment of not only his/her mental caliber but also his/her social traits and integrity of character. The Board would broadly assess the candidate inter-alia in the following:

(i) Physical Make-up

(a) Appearance

(b) Bearing

(c) Manners and Mannerism

(ii) General Intelligence, Aptitude and Interest

(a) Ability to perceive, analyse and present facts and situation.

(b) Work related aptitudes, like discipline, empathy etc.

(c) Extra-curricular activities-participation in games, sports, debates etc.

(iii) Disposition

(a) Leadership, drive, determination, quick decision making etc.

(b) Self-reliance.

(c) Ability to face stress and crisis.

(d) Courage-moral and physical.

(iv) Behavioural aspects of personality

(a) Inter-personal relations with superiors and subordinates.

(b) Commitment to values, integrity, secular and national orientation.

(11) The candidature of such candidates who do not qualify at the Physical Standards/Physical Efficiency Tests or Medical Standards Tests is liable for cancellation.

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